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Get your plicker card and answer the following question (based on the date):

1/12: If Mendel had not examined the ___ generation, he would not have discovered his theory of segregation.

  1. P
  2. F1
  3. F2
  4. More than one of these

1/22: The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is

  1. Heterozygous
  2. Homozygous dominant
  3. Homozygous
  4. Homozygous recessive

1/23: In horses, B = black coat, b = brown coat, T = trotter, and t = pacer. A black trotter that has a brown pacer offspring has which of the following genotypes?

  1. BT
  2. BbTt
  3. bbtt
  4. BBtt

1/24: What is the relationship between the F1 and F2 generation?

  1. F1 generation are the parents of the F2 generation.
  2. There is no relationship between the two generations.
  3. F2 generation are the parents of the F1 generation.
  4. F1 generation are the males while the F2 generation are the females.

1/25: Color blindness is an x-linked trait in humans. If a color blind woman marries a man with normal vision, the children will be

  1. All color blind daughters, but normal sons
  2. All color blind sons but carrier daughters
  3. All normal sons but carrier daughters
  4. All color blind children

1/26: Which is not a chromosomal abnormality?

  1. Inversion
  2. Extra chromosomes
  3. Translocation
  4. Crossing over

1/30: A karyotype shows a portion of chromosome #5 turned upside down. This is most likely due to a

  1. Translocation
  2. Inversion
  3. Deletion
  4. Duplication

1/31: Which of the following statements about heredity is true?

  1. An individual’s genotype is the physical manifestation of a genetic trait.
  2. An individual with matching alleles for a given trait is said to be heterozygous for that trait.
  3. For any given gene, there can only be two different alleles.
  4. An individual’s phenotype is the physical expression of the trait associated with a particular gene.

2/1: It is far more common to find human genetic disease caused by _______ alleles than by __________ alleles because

  1. Recessive, dominant, harmful recessive alleles can survive in the heterozygote without any pressure against them
  2. Dominant, recessive, dominant alleles become dominant because they aid the survival of the organism carrying them
  3. Recessive, dominant, even when homozygous, recessive alleles usually do not cause as much damage as dominant alleles
  4. None of these

2/6: Who developed the theory of evolution by natural selection?

  1. Alfred Wallace
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
  4. Charles Lyell

2/9: Natural selection states that

  1. A change in a species occurs over time
  2. Nature selects the variations within a species that are most useful for survival
  3. Fitness is an organism’s ability to survive and produce fertile offspring
  4. All of the above

2/12: Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Individuals do not evolve, genes do evolve.
  2. Individuals do not evolve, populations do evolve.
  3. Populations do not evolve, individuals do evolve.
  4. Populations do not evolve, species do evolve.

2/13: What is the frequency of an R allele in a population if the frequency of the r allele at the same locus is 0.4?

  1. 0.16
  2. 0.8
  3. 0.6
  4. 1.0

2/14: Which condition will not keep a population in equilibrium?

  1. No genetic drift can occur.
  2. Immigration but emigration can occur.
  3. No gene flow can occur.
  4. Random mating must occur.

2/16: The greyhound dog was originally used to hunt the fastest of game, fox and deer. The breed dates to ancient Egypt. Early breeders of greyhound dogs were interested in dogs with the greatest speed. Breeders carefully selected the fastest dogs from a group of hounds. From their offspring, the greyhound breeders again selected those dogs that ran the fastest. By continuing selection for those dogs that ran faster than most of the hound dog population, they gradually produced dogs that could run up to 64 km/h (40 mph). This application of artificial selection most resembles

  1. Stabilizing selection
  2. Genetic engineering
  3. Directional selection
  4. Disruptive selection

2/20: Using hair as the derived trait, three of the following organisms fit in the clade. Which one does not fit?

  1. Tiger
  2. Crocodile
  3. Wolf
  4. Elephant

2/21: BLAST results give an E-value for each hit. If you receive a small E-value, that means

  1. you are confident about your match because it is very close to the sample
  2. you are not sure about your match because it is very close to the sample
  3. you are confident about your match because it is very different from the sample
  4. you are not sure about your match because it is very different from the sample

2/23: Simulation experiments performed by Stanley Miller demonstrate that

  1. DNA forms readily and reproduces itself under abiotic conditions
  2. Many of the organic compounds required for life can form under abiotic conditions
  3. Prokaryotic cells form under stimulated primitive atmosphere conditions
  4. Membranes eventually form under simulated primitive atmosphere conditions

2/26: Where did Darwin make some of his important observations that helped him develop of his theory?

  1. England
  2. The Galapagos Islands
  3. South Africa
  4. South America

2/27: Which of the following is not a component of evolution by natural selection?

  1. Variation exists within a population.
  2. Organisms compete for resources.
  3. Individuals have different reproductive success.
  4. Species are fixed.

2/28: Albinism is only expressed in homozygous recessive individuals. If the worldwide frequency of albinism is 1 in 17,000, what is the frequency of people who are heterozygous for albinism?

  1. 0.00761
  2. 0.0152
  3. 0.152
  4. 0.300

3/1: Speciation can occur with or without a geographical barrier occurring between populations of existing species. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Allopatric speciation does not require geographic separation between subsets of a population.
  2. Speciation without a geographical barrier is possible if sexual selection is prevalent, such as when females select males based on their appearance.
  3. If a river changes course and divides a population that is then unable to cross the river, this would result in sympatric speciation.
  4. It is impossible for speciation to occur unless one subset of the population is physically isolated from the ancestral population.

3/6: Which of the following is a unique and defining characteristic of kingdom Animalia?

  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Hormones
  3. Movement
  4. Light detection

3/7: Prokaryotes that live in extreme environments belong to the domain

  1. Bacteria
  2. Eukarya
  3. Protista
  4. Archaea

3/8: A general plant life cycle alternates between

  1. Bryophyte and saprophyte generations
  2. Tracheophyte and spermatophyte generations
  3. Gametophyte and sporophyte generations
  4. Xerophyte and epiphyte generations

3/12: Transpiration is the evaporation of water through the _______________ of a plant.

  1. Stomata
  2. Leaf
  3. Xylem
  4. Root

3/13: Many processes aid in the movement of water up the xylem of a plant. Which of the following does not contribute to this transport?

  1. Higher water potential is at the top of the plant.
  2. Cohesion of water molecules creates a linked “chain” up the plant.
  3. Water evaporates from the top of the plant and enters through the roots of the plant.
  4. Water molecules hold on the sides of the xylem cells through adhesion.

3/14: What does the addition of a phosphate group do to a protein?

  1. Always inactivates a protein
  2. Is accomplished by protein phosphatases
  3. Always activates a protein
  4. Can either activate or inactivate a protein

3/15: A junction where an axon terminal meets another cell is known as

  1. The synapse
  2. The neurotransmitter junction
  3. The axon terminal junction
  4. The axon-dendrite junction

3/19: Which statement best describes the immune system?

  1. The immune system produces hormones, such as adrenaline.
  2. The immune system exchanges gases between the blood and lungs.
  3. The immune system protects the body from pathogens.
  4. The immune system digests food into usable nutrients.

3/20: If beetles, earwigs, and flies belong to the same class (Insecta) but to different orders, and if aphids, water striders and leaf hoppers belong to the same order (Hemiptera) but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of similarity?

  1. Beetles and earwigs
  2. Beetles and flies
  3. Flies and leaf hoppers
  4. Water striders and aphids

3/21: Which of the following vegetables is actually a fruit?

  1. Carrot
  2. Bell pepper
  3. Broccoli
  4. Cabbage

3/22: Which of the following correctly compares the energy requirements of a rat and a snake of equal body mass living at room temperature?

  1. The rat and the snake have the same energy (caloric) requirements because they are the same mass and at the same temperature.
  2. The snake would require more energy because it is a carnivore.
  3. The snake would require more energy because it has no fur and little to no subcutaneous (under the skin) fat.
  4. The rat would require more energy because it is a mammal.

3/23: Tetrodotoxin is a potent neurotoxin carried by symbiotic bacteria in certain aquatic species such as the pufferfish. The toxin blocks sodium channels in neurons. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the effect of tetrodotoxin on axons?

  1. It blocks the potassium channels when a neuron undergoes hyperpolarization.
  2. It disrupts the depolarization step of a firing neuron.
  3. It interrupts depolarization because potassium channels are blocked.
  4. It blocks the ability of a neuron to release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

3/26: What is the role of T cells in defense?

  1. They produce proteins that inactivate pathogens.
  2. They inject poison into parasites.
  3. They make chemicals that cause inflammation in the bloodstream.
  4. They destroy infected body cells.

3/28: Which statement best explains the relationship between a food chain and a food web?

  1. A food web includes many intersecting food chains.
  2. A food chain includes many intersecting food webs.
  3. A food chain leads into a food web.
  4. A food web and food chain begin and end with the same organisms.

3/29: Which is the best definition of a population?

  1. The unit of natural selection and evolution
  2. All species that live in the same area
  3. A group of species that live in the same area
  4. A group of organisms of the same species that live in the same area

4/2: What is type of biologist investigates and interprets various animal behaviors in terms of animals’ reaction to their own environment?

  1. Behavioral biologist
  2. Ethologist
  3. Veterinarian
  4. Botanist

4/4: Negative feedback plays an important role in maintaining homeostasis in the body (i.e. blood glucose regulation). Negative feedback is also important in population dynamics. How does negative feedback play a role in density-dependent inhibition of population growth?

  1. When individuals are born, the population density rises and increases the odds of more births.
  2. As the population decreases, it causes an increase in the birthrate.
  3. When individuals die, the number of births increases in order to maintain the population density.
  4. When the population increases and the density reaches a critical level, the accumulation of “product” (individuals) will slow the birth rate, thus reducing the population.

4/5: Which statement best describes the evolution of behavior?

  1. Behaviors evolve when they are necessary for survival.
  2. Behaviors evolve when they increase the fitness of the animal performing them.
  3. Behaviors evolve when nature determines what is beneficial.
  4. Behaviors evolve when genes mutate.

4/16: Some species of ground squirrels communicate through warning barks that signal the presence of a predator. This warning will signal other squirrels to hide in their burrows whereas the squirrel who gave the warning bark has put itself at increased risk. What is this an example of?

  1. Altruistic behavior because the squirrel does something to help another, even if it comes at its own expense
  2. Territoriality because the squirrel issuing the warning bark is defending a geographic area against other squirrels
  3. Agonistic behavior because the squirrel is giving a threatening display to scare away the predator
  4. Dominance hierarchies because the squirrel issuing the warning bark is the “alpha” squirrel

4/17: Every year, humans deforest millions of hectares of tropical rain forest. Which of the following is a likely consequence of this deforestation?

  1. Increased carbon dioxide will reduce ozone concentrations in the atmosphere, resulting in higher levels of ultraviolet radiation on the earth’s surface.
  2. Lower oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere will decrease the biodiversity of terrestrial animals.
  3. Animal and plant populations will be eliminated as their habitats are destroyed, leading to a decrease in biodiversity.
  4. Increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will reduce plant and algae growth in other biomes.

4/19: A biologist created a computer program to stimulate a large population of insects. The program specifies that no mutations occur, there is no natural selection or gene flow, and mating is random. After several generations, the population in the program

  • Evolved, but may not yet have speciated
  • Will get smaller due to lack of genetic variation
  • Will get larger and larger since there are no selective pressures
  • Will have the same allele frequencies, although the original members of the population have been replaced

In an experiment, lab mice have their tails cut off soon after birth for 18 generations, but all the offspring in the 19th generation have tails of the same average length as the first generation. Which of the following correctly explains this observation?

  • This observation is explained by natural selection.
  • Offspring can inherit characteristics acquired by the parent in their lifetime but only if there is a selective pressure to maintain the trait.
  • Offspring usually have little to no resemblance to their parents.
  • Only mutations in gametes and cells that produce gametes affect offspring.

4/20: Which of these factors would be most likely to result in speciation of a population?

  • A flooded plain that leaves two populations on each side of a body of water
  • A mutation that introduces a new allele at a specific locus
  • A hybrid between two members of the cat family
  • A non-disjunction of a sex chromosome

What evidence supports the theory that macromolecules could have been created in Earth’s early environment?

  • Carbon-based molecules attract each other to form cells
  • Methane, hydrogen, ammonia, and water vapor can oxidize into macromolecules
  • Water attracts carbon to form carbohydrates
  • There is no evidence, macromolecules only arise from living organisms

4/23: A student placed a plant in a sealed container and measured the amount of carbon dioxide and oxygen present. For the first several days, she kept the plant in the light and found that the oxygen concentration increased. For the next several days, she kept the plants in the dark and observed that the oxygen concentration decreased in the dark?

  1. The plant used oxygen for photosynthesis.
  2. The plant used oxygen for cellular respiration.
  3. The plant produced more carbon dioxide, displacing the oxygen.
  4. The plant consumed more carbon dioxide, resulting in more oxygen use.

In the process of metamorphosis when a tadpole becomes a frog, which of the following best describes the mechanism by which the frog’s tail disappears?

  • The tail cells are deprived of nutrients until the cells die and then the tail is shed.
  • Blood flow to the tail is restricted until the cells die and the tail is shed.
  • The developing frogs eats its tail, which contains chemicals that help complete the metamorphosis.
  • The cells of the tail undergo apoptosis, and the nutrients from the cells are recycled.

4/24: Which of the following is true regarding the body temperature regulation in most endotherms (birds and mammals)?

  1. Body temperature is very tightly regulated at 37°C (98.6°F).
  2. Body temperature is constant over the entire body of organism throughout the day.
  3. Body temperature is regulated by the absorption of heat by the skin, sweat glands, respiratory surfaces, and muscles.
  4. The core of the body maintains the highest temperature, while losses of body heat at the surface are adjusted to maintain temperature.

Under which of the following conditions would be the pancreas most likely secrete insulin, a hormone that lowers blood glucose levels?

  1. After a carbohydrate-rich meal, regulated by positive feedback
  2. After a carbohydrate-rich meal, regulated by negative feedback
  3. Before a protein-rich meal, regulated by positive feedback
  4. Before a protein-rich meal, regulated by negative feedback

4/26: Eukaryotic DNA replication results in one mistake per 109 base pairs, yet the actual number of incorrect nucleotides incorporated by DNA polymerase is much greater. In addition, nucleotides can be chemically modified in a variety of ways, including the absorption of UV radiation. How does the process of DNA replication occur with such high fidelity despite mutations introduced in the initial polymerization or by mutations that occur between replications?

  1. Most mistakes are made in noncoding regions, so they make little to no difference in the cells.
  2. Most mistakes are made after the parent cell or zygote has already divided hundreds of times, so the mistakes that are introduced affect few cells and do not affect zygotes.
  3. The translated product of mutant genes acts as a signaling molecule that binds to the promoter of the mutated gene and marks it for excision by DNA polymerase.
  4. DNA polymerase detects and repairs all mutations during replication regardless of the source of the mutation.

The endocrine and nervous systems both coordinate the functioning of the body. Which of the following answer choices least correctly relates the structure to its function in either the endocrine or nervous system?

  1. The long cells of the nervous system allow specific sets of cells to communicate very rapidly.
  2. The fat solubility of some hormones allows them to cross cell membranes and alter gene expression by directly binding to intracellular receptors that acts as transcription factors.
  3. The limitations of the time for diffusion is minimized through tiny synaptic spaces between cells of the nervous system increasing the speed at which they can communicate.
  4. Glands are located at specific locations throughout the body according to the extracellular composition that best supports their growth and maintenance.

4/27: Messenger RNA is the carrier of information from DNA to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where proteins are synthesized. The RNA is transcribed from a DNA template. A special enzyme is involved in separating the two strands of the DNA molecule apart and then hooks the RNA nucleotides together as they base pair along the DNA template. The special enzyme involved in this process is called

  1. DNA primase
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. RNA polymerase
  4. Helicase, a promoter

Which sequence represents the correct order of events in signal transduction?

  1. Chemical signal, target proteins, receptor, intracellular proteins, cells
  2. Receptor, chemical signal, target proteins, intracellular proteins, cell
  3. Chemical signal, receptor, intracellular proteins, target proteins, cell
  4. Chemical signal, receptor, target proteins, intracellular proteins, cell

4/30: The 20 amino acids that make up proteins can be organized by the chemical reactivity of their side chains. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the purpose of the categorizing amino acids by the chemical nature of their side chains?

  1. The properties of a protein are a function of the shape of the protein that is determined by the composition of nonpolar amino acids.
  2. The chemistry of an amino acid determines which other amino acids it can form a peptide bond with, affecting the order of the amino acids in the proteins.
  3. The side chains of the amino acids determine the structure of a protein by determining the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide.
  4. The function of a protein is mostly predictable by the side chains chemistry of the amino acids.

Every year, humans deforest millions of hectares of tropical rain forest. Which of the following is a likely consequence of this deforestation?

  1. Increased carbon dioxide will reduce ozone concentrations in the atmosphere, resulting in higher levels of ultraviolet radiation on the earth’s surface.
  2. Lower oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere will decrease the biodiversity of terrestrial animals.
  3. Animal and plant populations will be eliminated as their habitats are destroyed, leading to a decrease in biodiversity.
  4. Increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will reduce plant and algae growth in other biomes.

5/1: As organs and organ systems continue to develop in this embryo, the eyes will contain clear, transparent lenses. How does a single group of cells differentiate to produce both the transparent lens cells as well as all the other specialized cells in the completed organism?

  1. Each cell selectively uses certain genes to make specific proteins not found in any other cell types.
  2. A cell selectively deletes certain copies of genes and the remaining genes produce proteins for a specific purpose.
  3. Each cell has the same genetic composition so specific hormones are activated to produce cell types with specific structures and functions.
  4. Specific genes for specific proteins migrate to cells; those migrated genes are activated to produce the proteins that determine the cell's structure and function.

Microbial population growth is represented by the graph. Based on this model, we would expect the population growth of this colony to

  1. Be exponential
  2. Change over time
  3. Remain constant over time
  4. Follow a boom or bust cycle

5/8: Imagine that this schematic represents the fight-or-flight response and the signal is the hormone epinephrine. What would #3, response, represent in this case?

  1. ATP is converted to cAMP.
  2. Splitting of protein kinase A.
  3. Glycogen broken into glucose subunits.
  4. Glycogen diffuses through cell membrane.
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