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Get your plicker card and answer the following question (based on the date):

8/14: After formulating a hypothesis, a scientist

  1. proves the hypothesis to be true or false
  2. tests the hypothesis
  3. makes sure environmental conditions are just right
  4. formulates a scientific theory

8/15: “Acidic” is the appropriate description for three of the following. Which one is the exception?

  1. Excess hydrogen ions
  2. Magnesium hydroxide
  3. The contents of the stomach
  4. A pH less than 7

8/16: Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. An element is made of one specific type of atom.
  2. An ion is an atom with a net electric charge due to the loss or gain of one or more protons.
  3. A compound is composed of two or more elements in a fixed ratio.
  4. An element is defined by the number of protons.

8/17: Which of the following statements regarding carbon is false?

  1. Carbon has the capacity to form polar covalent bonds with hydrogen.
  2. Carbon has the ability to form covalent bonds with up to four other atoms.
  3. Carbon has the capacity to form single and double bonds.
  4. Carbon has the ability to bond together to form extensive branched or unbranched “carbon skeletons.”

8/18: What defining characteristic of life is observed when a jogging man begins to sweat and when a plant closes its stomata openings in its leaves?

  1. Metabolism
  2. Heredity
  3. Cellular makeup
  4. Homeostasis

8/22: Which of the following properties of water can be attributed to hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

  1. Water stabilizes temperature inside and outside the cell
  2. Water molecules are cohesive
  3. Water is a solvent for many molecules
  4. All of these are correct

8/23: Enzymes lower the activation energy by

  1. Helping substrates get together
  2. Orienting substrates into positions that favor a reaction
  3. Shutting out water molecules
  4. Inducing a fit between the enzyme and the substrate

8/25: With regard to enzymes, what can be said to be the relationship between the substrate and the active site?

  1. One (or multiple) substrates can bind to the active site and is changed into product(s).
  2. Every active site will always accept multiple substrates in order to produce a new product.
  3. The active site of an enzyme combines with the substrate, when a product is given to the enzyme, producing a new molecule.
  4. A specific product fits into the active site of an enzyme. The enzyme then breaks down the product to make a new substrate.

8/30: Which of the following best distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?

  1. Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall, but eukaryotic cells never do.
  2. Prokaryotic cells are much larger, but eukaryotic cells.
  3. Prokaryotic cells have flagella, but eukaryotic cells do not.
  4. Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do have such a nucleus.

8/31: All cells have some similar cellular components. Which of the following is not found in all cells?

  1. Membrane
  2. Nucleus
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Cytoplasm

9/5: When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,

  1. Solute exits the cell to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane
  2. Water exits the cell toward the area of lower solute concentration
  3. Water enters the cell toward the area of higher solute concentration
  4. There is no net movement of water or solution

9/6: Which of the following best characteristics the structure of the plasma membrane?

  1. Rigid and unchanging
  2. Rigid but varying from cell to cell
  3. Fluid but unorganized
  4. Very active

9/7: What effect does a hypotonic solution have on a cell?

  1. It remains the same.
  2. It causes it to shrink.
  3. It causes it to swell.
  4. None of these

9/8: A U-tube is set up with two solutions, solution A and solution B, separated from each other by a semi-permeable membrane. Solution A has a water potential of 3 and solution B has a water potential of 1.5. Which of the following is true?

  1. Water will move from solution A into solution B.
  2. Solution is hypertonic compared to solution B.
  3. Water will move from solution B into solution A.
  4. Solution B has a higher pressure potential.

9/13: During diffusion, substances move from an area of ____________ concentration to an area of ______________ concentration.

  1. Higher, lower
  2. Lower, higher
  3. Higher, equal
  4. Lower, equal

9/18: Which of the following is not an advantage a cell gains by having organelles?

  1. A cell gains the ability to concentrate enzymes and reactants in a small volume, thus increasing the rate of reaction.
  2. Enzymes for biochemical pathways can be embedded in membranes in their correct sequences, such as the electron carrying proteins of the light reactions.
  3. Microenvironments can be created, such as pHs, greatly different from the cytosol.
  4. The complexity of the cell is lowered, thus making it easier for substances to pass freely through the cell.

9/19: The liver is the site for alcohol detoxification, whereas adipocytes store fat. Which organelle would be found in larger amounts in the liver cell, compared to the adipocyte?

  1. Smooth ER
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Cytoskeleton
  4. Mitochondria

9/20: Cell membranes regulate the flow of substances into and out of the cell. Not all molecules are equally soluble. Which of the following is a false statement regarding passage across a cell membrane?

  1. Small, uncharged, polar molecules can pass through
  2. Small, hydrophobic molecules can pass through
  3. Charged particles such as ions are repelled
  4. Only oxygen and carbon dioxide can easily pass through; all other substances require a transport protein

9/21: Which of the following best describes how the organelles of a eukaryotic cell work together when creating a protein?

  1. The proteins translated in the nucleus are processed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum, which then export the proteins to their final destination.
  2. The Golgi apparatus synthesizes proteins and either exports them out of the cell or sends them to the rough endoplasmic reticulum for further processing.
  3. Proteins synthesized by the ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum are moved by vacuoles to the Golgi apparatus for processing.
  4. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum creates proteins, packages them in vacuoles, and sends them to the Golgi apparatus for processing and transport to the final destination.

9/27: ______________ produces __________, which is the energy molecule for the cell.

  1. Chloroplast, ATP
  2. Mitochondria, ATP
  3. Chloroplast, Glucose
  4. Mitochondria, Glucose

10/2: Which molecules are transferred between the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (i.e. Calvin cycle)?

  1. CO2 and ATP
  2. ATP and NADPH
  3. NADPH and H2O
  4. H2O and O2

10/5: Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the Calvin cycle?

  1. The main inputs to the reactions are NADPH, ATP, and CO2.
  2. The main outputs of the reactions are NADP+, ADP, and sugar.
  3. More NADPH is used than ATP during the Calvin cycle.
  4. Carbon fixation is the first step of the process.

10/9: What is the carbon dioxide source in this experiment?

  1. Bicarbonate solution
  2. Water
  3. Acid solution
  4. Air

10/16: Which process requires oxygen to function?

  1. Aerobic respiration
  2. Anaerobic respiration
  3. Lactic acid fermentation
  4. Alcoholic fermentation

10/18: ATP synthase is

  1. Both an enzyme that makes ATP and a channel protein, and helps hydrogen ions cross the thylakoid membrane.
  2. Both an enzyme that makes ATP and a channel protein, and helps hydrogen ions cross the chloroplast membrane.
  3. Both an enzyme that makes ATP and a carrier protein, and helps hydrogen ions cross the thylakoid membrane.
  4. Both an enzyme that makes ATP and a carrier protein, and helps hydrogen ions cross the chloroplast membrane.

10/19: Which of the following statements correctly describes a metabolic effect of cyanide, a poison that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain?

  1. The pH of the intermembrane space becomes much lower than normal.
  2. Alcohol would build up in the mitochondria.
  3. NADH supplies would be exhausted and ATP synthesis would cease.
  4. No proton gradient would be produced, and ATP synthesis would cease.

10/27: Which cells undergo cell division?

  1. Prokaryotic cells only
  2. Eukaryotic cells only
  3. Cancer cells only
  4. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

10/30: Which is true about the cell cycle?

  1. The timing of cell division is controlled by cyclins and CDKs.
  2. A characteristic of cancer cell is density-dependent inhibition.
  3. The cell cycle is controlled solely by signals external to the cell.
  4. The cell cycle is controlled solely by internal signals.

10/31: Mitosis ___________ chromosome number whereas meiosis __________ the chromosome number of the daughter cells.

  1. Maintains, increases
  2. Increases, maintains
  3. Increases, decreases
  4. Maintains, decreases

11/1: What is an advantage of meiosis over mitosis?

  1. Meiosis creates more cells than mitosis.
  2. Meiosis creates genetically unique offspring.
  3. Meiosis produces genetically identical offspring.
  4. Meiosis occurs faster than mitosis.

11/2: Meiosis produces ____________ cells while mitosis produces ____________ cells.

  1. Haploid, diploid
  2. Diploid, diploid
  3. Diploid, haploid
  4. Haploid, haploid

11/8: The subunits of DNA are nucleotides consisting of

  1. A sugar, a carbon group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
  2. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
  3. A sugar, a phosphate group, and an oxygen-containing base.
  4. A lipid, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.

11/9: Rosalind Franklin used which technique to determine many of the physical characteristics of DNA?

  1. Transformation
  2. Transmission electron microscopy
  3. X-ray diffraction
  4. Density-gradient centrifugation

11/10: DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because

  1. One of the new molecules conserves both of the original DNA strands.
  2. The new DNA molecule contains two new DNA strands.
  3. Both of the new molecules contain one new strand and one old strand.
  4. DNA polymerase conserves both of the old strands.

11/14: Frameshift mutations may involve

  1. Substitution of nucleotides.
  2. Substitution of codons.
  3. Substitution of amino acids.
  4. Addition or deletion of one or more base pairs.

11/15: During protein synthesis, an anticodon on the transfer RNA (tRNA) pairs with

  1. DNA nucleotide bases.
  2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) nucleotide bases.
  3. Messenger RNA (mRNA) nucleotide bases.
  4. Other tRNA nucleotide bases.

11/16: A researcher noticed that two differently structured proteins were translated from the same mouse gene. Which mechanism below could best account for this?

  1. A mutation altered the gene in some cells but not others.
  2. Exons from the same gene could be spliced in different ways to make different mRNAs.
  3. The two proteins have different functions in the cell.
  4. Different transcription factors were involved in the transcription of the two mRNAs.

11/28: PCR allows target segments of DNA to be produced quickly by using heat to denature and separate strands of DNA, then cooling to allow primers to attach to the single strands and DNA polymerase to synthesize new strands of the target DNA by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of each primer on the two strands. Why was this process considered so important that it earned Kary Mullis a Nobel Prize?

  1. It is useful for isolating the source of DNA.
  2. It facilitates the introduction of plasmid DNA into a host cell.
  3. It enables selection of transformed cells that have taken up foreign DNA.
  4. It can produce multiple copies of even minute samples of DNA.

11/29: What process separates DNA fragments according to size?

  1. Cloning
  2. Recombinant DNA formation
  3. Transformation
  4. Gel electrophoresis

11/30: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by a mutated cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. This protein is important for controlling the exchange of materials in the gas-exchange and digestive systems. The defective protein is no longer able to properly move chloride ions from the inside of the cell to the outside. Because of this, water balance is negatively affected, leading to a buildup of thick mucus secretions outside of the cells. Victims of CF suffer from lung infections and digestion difficulties. There are many classifications of CFTR mutations. Which of the following would result in a truncated (shortened) protein?

  1. Defective post-translational processing and transport
  2. Premature stop codon
  3. Reduction in channel opening probability
  4. Splicing defect during mRNA processing

12/1: After eukaryotic transcription takes place, mRNA undergoes several modifications before leaving the nucleus to take part in translation. One of these is the cutting out of nonessential sections of mRNA and the subsequence splicing together of stretches of mRNA necessary for the final functional molecule. Which of the following mRNA sections are spliced together into the finished mRNA molecule?

  1. Introns
  2. Exons
  3. Genes
  4. Ribozymes

12/3: A eukaryotic gene, which does not normally undergo splicing, was exposed to benzypyrene, a known carcinogen and mutagen. Following exposure, the protein encoded by the gene was shorter than before exposure. Which of the following types of genetic rearrangements or mutations was likely introduced by the mutagen?

  1. Silent mutation
  2. Missense mutation
  3. Nonsense mutation
  4. Duplication
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